1. The minimum amount of wage for contract worker has been increased to
(1)
12,000/pm
(2) 10,000/pm
(3)
15000/pm
(4)
20,000/pm
2. which
state has mandated minimum eligibility for contesting election
(1) Haryana (2) bihar
(1) Haryana (2) bihar
(3) uttar Pradesh (4)
maharashtra
3. The
state where a deadlock over floor test happened which finally ended with the
revocation
of courts judgment
of courts judgment
(1)
goa (2)
Haryana
(3) uttarakhand (4) Andhra Pradesh
4. the
water film festival was inaugurated in which city that aims for cleaning of Ganga ?
(1) Kanpur (2) varanashi
(1) Kanpur (2) varanashi
(3) patna (4)
new delhi
5. which
nation has been recently inducted with IMF and world bank ?
(1) Kosovo (2) Vatican city
(1) Kosovo (2) Vatican city
(3) Nauru (4) South Sudan
6. The
term DIPAM is related with
(1)
Department of Indian government
(2)
Scheme for women
(3)
Payment bank
(4)
Scheme for skill development
7. who
is the director general of WTO ?
(1) Margaret thatcher (2) Roberto azevedo
(3) teressa ray (4) raghuram rajan
8. Which
government has recommended for 10 % reservation for general class in govt jobs.
(1) Maharashtra (2) bihar
(1) Maharashtra (2) bihar
(3) goa (4) gujrat
9. Which of the following exercised the most
profound influence in framing the Indian
Constitution?
Constitution?
(1) British
Constitution (2) Government of India
Act, 1935
(3) US Constitution (4) Charter Act of 1833
(3) US Constitution (4) Charter Act of 1833
10. Who is the cultural minister of india recently in
news ?
(1) prakash jaberkar (2) Sushma swaraj
(1) prakash jaberkar (2) Sushma swaraj
(3) dhramendra pradhan (4) Mahesh sharma
11. Operation sulaimani launched in kerala is related with
(1) Poverty eradication (2) health
(1) Poverty eradication (2) health
(3) skill development (4) immunization
12. which state in India is the first state prohibiting liquor
in all forms
(1) gujrat (2) kerala
(1) gujrat (2) kerala
(3) Nagaland (4) bihar
13. shimahast kumbh mela is related
with which state of India
(1) maharashtra (2) uttrakhanad
(1) maharashtra (2) uttrakhanad
(3) UP (4) MP
14. Which international airport is planning to installed largest wooden
CHARKHA in the world
?
?
(1)
patna (2)
kolkata
(3) gandhinagar (4)
ahamedabad
15. Which continent has recorded zero case of malaria and declared itself
free?
(1) asia (2) Africa
(1) asia (2) Africa
(3) australlia (4)
Europe
16. NIRF ranking is related with which sector?
(1) Poverty (2) education
(1) Poverty (2) education
(3) health (4) ease of doing business
17. Blue box and Green box is related with
(1) Modified seeds (2) new discoveries
in quantam physics
(3) space shuttles (4) WTO subsidy
mechanism
18. GRAM UDAY TO BHARAT UDAY
progarmme is related with
(1) scheme for skill development (2) education
(1) scheme for skill development (2) education
(3) panchayti raj institution (4) health services
19. who is the head of committee regulating advertisement related
guidelines ?
(1) P N bhagwati (2) B B Tondon
(1) P N bhagwati (2) B B Tondon
(3) R M lodha (4) Bibek Debroy
20. Which is equivalent global positioning
system of India like GPS ?
(1)
BUUVAN
(2)
dhruv
(3)
Galileo
(4) IRNSS
21. The chief minister of a state in
India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(1)
he himself is a candidate
(2)
he is
yet to prove
his majority in
the floor of
the LOWER HOUSE
of the state legislature
(3) he is a member of
the Upper House of the state legislature
(4)
he is a caretaker Chief Minister
22. Which of the following is a
feature common to both the Indian Federation & the American
Federation?
Federation?
(1) A single citizenship
(2)
Three lists in the constitution
(3)
Dual judiciar
(4)
A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution
23. Which of
the following is in the Concurrent
list in the Constitution of India?
(1)
Population control & family planning
(2)
Public health & sanitation
(3)
Capitation taxes
(4)
Treasure trove
24. Which of the following comes
under the jurisdiction of both the High Court & the Supreme
Court?
Court?
(1)
Disputes between the centre & the States
(2)
Disputes between the States inter se
(3)
Protection of the fundamental rights
(4)
Protection Against the violation of the Constitution
25. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in
(1)
kerala
(2)
jammu & kashmir
(3)
west Bengal
(4)
Tamil Nadu
26. Which of the following taxes
is/are levied by the union & collected & appropriated by the
states?
states?
(1)
Stamp duties
(2)
Passenger & goods tax
(3)
Estate Duty
(4)
Taxes on Newspapers
27. Which one of the following determines that
the Indian Constitution is federal?
(1)
A written & rigidnConstitution
(2)
An independent judiciary
(3)
Visiting of residuary powers with the centre
(4)
Distribution of powers between the centre & the States
28. The Dinesh Goshwami Committee was concerned with
(1)
de-nationalisation of banks
(2)
electoral reforms
(3)
steps to put down insurgency in the north east
(4)
the problem of the chakmas
29. If in an election to a state
legislature Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses
his deposit, it means that
his deposit, it means that
(1)
the polling was very poor
(2)
the election was for a multi-member constituency
(3)
the elected candidates victory over his nearest rival
was very marginal
(4)
a very large no. of candidates contested the election
30. Who among the following have the
right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha &
the Rajya Sabha?
the Rajya Sabha?
(1)
Elected members of the Lower house of the parliament
(2)
Elected members of the Upper house of the parliament
(3)
Elected members of the Upper house of the State
Legislature
(4)
Elected members of the Lower house of the State
Legislature
31. In the interim government formed in 1946 the Vice-President of the
Executive Council was
(1)
Jawaharlal Nehru
(2)
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(3)
C. Rajagopalachari
(4)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
32. The 1st attempt to
introduce a representative & popular element in the Governance of India
was made through
was made through
(1)
Indian Council Act,1861
(2)
Indian Council Act,1892
(3)
Indian Council Act, 1909
(4)
Government of India Act, 1919
33. Which of the following Acts introduced communal electorate in
India?
(1)
Indian Council Act,1861
(2)
Indian Council Act,1892
(3)
Indian Council Act, 1909
(4)
Government of India Act, 1935
34. By virtue of which Act, Dyrachy was introduced in India?
(1)
Indian Council Act, 1909
(2)
Government of India Act, 1919
(3)
Government of India Act, 1935
(4)
Indian independence Act, 1947
35. Through which one of the
following were commercial activities of the East India Company
finally put to an end?
finally put to an end?
(1)
The charter Act of 1793
(2)
The charter Act of 1813
(3)
The charter Act of 1833
(4)
The charter Act of 1853
36. Which of the following vested the Secretary of State for India with
supreme control over the
Government of India?
Government of India?
(1)
Pitt’s India
Act, 1784
(2)
Government of India Act, 1858
(3)
Indian Council Act, 1861
(4)
Morley-Minto reforms,1909
37. The supreme court was set up by the
(1)
Regulating Act, 1773
(2)
Pitt’s India
Act. 1784
(3)
Charter Act, 1813
(4)
Charter Act, 1833
38. The cabinet mission plan for India envisaged
(1) Federation (2) Confederation
(1) Federation (2) Confederation
(3)
Unitary of of Government
(4)
Union Of States
39. The nationalist demand for a
Constituent Assembly was for the 1st
time conceded by the
British Government, though indirectly & with reservation in the
British Government, though indirectly & with reservation in the
(1) Cripps Proposals (2) August Offer
(3)
Cabinet mission plan
(4)
Act of 1935
40. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent
Assembly?
(1)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(2)
Acharya JB Kripalani
(3)
Jay Prakash Narayan
(4)
KM Munshi
41. To produce the constitution, the Constituent Assembly took
(1)
2 years 11 months & 18 days
(2)
3 years 10 months & 10 days
(3)
4 years 11 months & 11 days
(4)
5 years 5 months 5 days
42. Who was the
Chairman of the
Provincial Constitution Committee
of the Constituent
Assembly?
Assembly?
(1)
Dr. BR Ambedkar
(2)
Pt Jawaharlal Nehru
(3)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(4)
Sardar Patel
43. In the federation under the Act of 1935, residuary powers were
given to the
(1)
Federal Legislature
(2)
Provincial Legislature
(3)
Governor-General
(4)
Provincial Governor
44. In which year did the parliament adopt Indian Constitution
(1) 1947 (2) 1948
(1) 1947 (2) 1948
(3) 1950 (4) 1952
45. The objective resolution,
which outlined the
philosophy of the
indian constitution, was
moved in the constituent assembly by
moved in the constituent assembly by
(1)
Dr. S Radhakrishnan
(2)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(3)
Jawahar Lal Nehru
(4)
BR Ambedkar
46. Which of the following contries enjoys a federal form of Government?
(1) China (2) USA
(1) China (2) USA
(3) Cuba (4) Belgium
47. Indian Constituation is
(1) truly federal (2) truly unitary
(3)
federal with unitary bias
(4)
federal with bias against the states
48. Which of the following features & their source is wrongly
matched?
(1)
Judicial Review : British Practice
(2)
Concurrent List : Australian
Constitution
(3) Directive
Principals : Irish
Constitution
(4) Fundamental
Rights : US Constitution
49. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
(1) Part I (2) Part II
(1) Part I (2) Part II
(3) Part III (4)
Part IV
50. The tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with
(1)
Anti-defection Legislation
(2)
Panchayati Raj
(3)
Land reforms
(4)
Distribution of powers between the Union & States
51. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution Of India Contains
provisions regarding
(1)
Scheduled Languages
(2)
Oaths & Affirmations
(3)
Administration of Tribal Areas
(4)
Union, State Concurrent Lists
52. Which one of the following correctly explains the meaning of ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble?
(1)
Nationalisation of all means of production
(2)
Abolition of private property
(3)
Socialistic pattern of society
(4)
Eradication of exploitation & vested interest
53. Who said Preamble is the keynote to the Constitution?
(1) Ernest Barker (2) KM Munshi
(1) Ernest Barker (2) KM Munshi
(3) BR Ambedkar (4)
DD Basu
54. The following States
were created after
1960. Arrange them
in ascending Chronological
order of their formation & choose your answer from the given codes
order of their formation & choose your answer from the given codes
(a) Haryana (c) Sikkim
(c) Nagaland (d)
Meghalaya
Codes
(1) a,b,c,d (B) b,c,d,a
(3) c,a,d,b (d) b,d,a,c
55. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(1)
Puducherry : 1968
(2)
Sikkim : 1975
(3)
Mizoram :
1987
(4)
Trupura : 1972
56. Who can aquire the Indian Citizenship by the naturalization?
(1) Foreigners (2) NRI
(1) Foreigners (2) NRI
(3)
Overseas Indians (4) All of the above \57. A person will loose his citizenship, if
(1)
he voluntarily surrenders his citizenship
(2)
the government withdraws his citizenship
(3)
he voluntarily accept citizenship of another country
(4)
All of the Above
58. How many fundamental rights are enjoyed by the Indians
(1) Nine (2) Ten
(1) Nine (2) Ten
(3) Seven (4)
Six
59. At present In the constitution of India Right to Property is
(1)
Fundamental Right
(2)
Legal Right
(3)
Moral Right
(4)
None of the Above
60. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the
Fundamental Rights of the
Indian citizens?
Indian citizens?
(1)
Supreme court
(2)
parliament
(3)
President on the advice of the Council of ministers
(4)
None of these; the restrictions have already been
included in the Constitution
61. Which of the following are not among the
rights provided only to the citizens of India?
(1)
Right against Discrimination
(2)
Right to Vote
(3)
Right to equality
(4)
Right to hold public office
62. The chief
minister of a state in India is NOT eligible to vote in the presidential
election if
(1)
he himself is a candidate
(2)
) he is yet to prove majority on the floor of theLower
house of the state legislature
(3)
he is a member of the upper House of the state
Legislature
(4)
he is a caretaker Chief Minister
63. Which
one of the
following of the
feature common to
both the indian
Federation & the American federation?
(1)
A single citizenship
(2)
Three lists in the Constitution
(3)
Dual judiciary
(4)
A federal supereme court to interpret the constitution
64. Which one of the following is in the
concurrent list in the constitution of India
(1)
Population control & family planning (2) Public health &
sanitation
(3) Capitation taxes
(4) Treasure trove
65. Which one
of the following
comes under the jurisdiction
of both the
high court &
the
supreme court?
supreme court?
(1)
Disputes between the centre & the states
(2) Disputes between
the States inter se
(3)
Protection of the fundamental
rights (4) Protection against the
violation of the Constitution
66. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as
1979 in
(1)
kerala
(2)
Jammu & kashmir
(3) West Bengal
(4) Tmil Nadu
67. Which of the following taxes
is/are levied by the Union & collected & appropriated by the
states?
states?
(1)
Stamp Duties
(2)
Passenger & Good tax
(3)
Estate duty
(4)
taxes on newspapers
68. Which one of the following determines that the
Indian constitution is federal?
(1) A written & rigid Constitution (2) An independent Judiciary
(1) A written & rigid Constitution (2) An independent Judiciary
(3)
Vesting of residuary powers with the centre
(4)
Distribution of powers between the centre & the
states
69. The Dinesh goswami committee was concerned with
(1)
de nationalization of banks
(2)
electoral reforms
(3)
step to put down insurgency in the north east
(4)
the problem of the chakmas
70. which of the following political parties
is/are national politics parties?
(1)
Muslim league
(2)
Revolutionary Socialist Party
(3)
All India Forward Block
(4)
) Peasent & workers party of India
71. If in a election to a state Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared
elected loses
his deposit, it means that
his deposit, it means that
(1)
the polling was very poor
(2)
the election was for a multi-member constituency
(3)
the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(4)
a very large no. of candidates contested the election
72. who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both
the Lok Sabha & the
Rajya Sabha?
Rajya Sabha?
(1)
elected house of the Lower House of the Parliament
(2)
elected house of the Upper House of the Parliament
(3)
elected house of the Upper House of the Legislature
(4)
elected house of the Lower House of the Legislature
73. In the interim government formed in 1946 the
vice-president of the executive council was
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(3) C. Rajagopalachari (4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
74. Prohibition of discrimination on
grounds of religion etc. (Article 15
of the constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
(1) the Right to freedom of
Religion (2) the right against
Exploitation
(3) the
Cultural & Educational rights (4) the right to
Eqality
75. Agricultural income tax is assigned to the state governments by
(1) the
finance commisssion (2) the National
Development council
(3) the inter-state council (4) the constitution of
india
76. The power of the Supreme court
of India to decide disputes between the Centre & the states
falls under its
falls under its
(1) advisory jurisdiction (2) appellate
jurisdiction
(3)
original jurisdiction (4) constitutional
jurisdiction
77. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the
election of the president of
india but does not form part of forum for his impeachment?
india but does not form part of forum for his impeachment?
(1)
Lok Sabha
(2)
Rajya Sabha
(3)
State Legislative Councils
(4)
State Legislative Assemblies
78. “state for the purpose of fundamental right includes
(1) government and parliammnt of india (2)govt
and legislative assembly of india (3) all government authorities (4)all
of the above
79.
Fundamental rights are available against (1) only states both (2)
states and citizens (3) only citizens (4)
none of theses
80.
Right to property was removed as
a fundamental right by (1) 39th amendment (2)
44th amendment
(3) 42nd amendment (4)
40th amendment
81. Which of the following is not included in the
right of freedom
(1) freedom of speech (2) freedom of press
(3) right of residence (4) right of holding
religious outfit
82. The purpose of including of DPSP in the constitution is to establish
(1) Political democracy (2)social democracy
(1) Political democracy (2)social democracy
(3) gandhian democracy (4)social and economic democracy
83. the provision of DPSP has been taken by the constitution of
(1) USA (2) USSR
(1) USA (2) USSR
(3) UK (4)
IRELAND
84. which of the following appointment is not made by the president
(1) speaker of lok sabha (2) chief justice of india
(1) speaker of lok sabha (2) chief justice of india
(3) chief justice of air
staff (4) chief of army
85. the president submits its resignation to
(1) chief justice of
india (2) seaker of lok sabha
(3) vice president (4) prime minister
(3) vice president (4) prime minister
86. who was the president of india when india proclaimed ememrgency in
1975
(1) VV GIRI (2) gaini jail singh
(1) VV GIRI (2) gaini jail singh
(3) fakhruddin ali ahamd (4) Shankar dayal sharma
87. Who hold the power of nomination of anglo indian community in
legislature
(1) Minority commission (2) president of india
(1) Minority commission (2) president of india
(3) Prime minister (4) vice president
88. the power of making treaties with other countries lies with
(1) parliament (2) prime minister of india
(1) parliament (2) prime minister of india
(3) president (4) boundary commission
89. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to
(1) prime minister (2) lok sabha
(1) prime minister (2) lok sabha
(3) rajya sabha (4) president
90. the union ministers hold office during the
pleasure of
(1) the presdent (2) the prime minister
(1) the presdent (2) the prime minister
(3) chief justice (4) speaker of lok
sabha
91. who of the following prime
minister resigned before facing a vote of no confidence in the
lok shabha
lok shabha
(1) chnadra sekhar (2) morarji desai
(3) chaudhary charan singh (4)V P singh
92. the council of minister does not include
(1) cabinet minister
(2) ministers of state
(3)
ministers without portfolio
(4)
cabinet secretary
93. under the administration of which of the following is the department of
atomic energy
(1) prime minister office (2) cabinet secretary
(1) prime minister office (2) cabinet secretary
(3) ministry of power (4) ministry of
science and technology
94. Which amendment of
constitution made it
obligatory president to
exercise power in
accordance of council of ministers
accordance of council of ministers
(1) 42nd amendment (2) 47th amendment (3)
43rd amendment (4) 44th
amendment
95. the speaker from the house can be removed by the office by
(1) no confidence motion
(1) no confidence motion
(2)simple majority
(3) 2/3 rd majority of the total member
(4) special majority
96. In the rajya sabha the seats are distributed on the basis of
(1) in accordance with the population
(2) on the basis of economic capability
(3)
both
(4)
Area
97. Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?
(1) Britain (2) Belgium
(1) Britain (2) Belgium
(3) france (4) Switzerland
98. which nonmember can participate in the business of either house of
parliament ?
(1) vice president (2) solicitor general
(1) vice president (2) solicitor general
(3) Attorney general (4) chief justice of India
100. who is considered as the guardian of the public
purse ?
(1) Parliament (2) comptroller and
auditor general
(3) public account
committee (4) president
101. A
proclamation of emergency must be placed before the parliament for its approval
within ?
(1) 1 month (2) 2 month
(1) 1 month (2) 2 month
(3) 6 month (4) 1 year
102. The Indian parliament consist of
(1) lok sabha only (2) lok sabha and
president only
(3) rajya sabha only (4) lok
sabha, rajya sabha and president only
103. what
can be the maximum interval between two session of parliament?
(1) 3 month (2) 6 month
(1) 3 month (2) 6 month
(3) 4 month (4)
9 month
104. Which
functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the parliament?
(1) attorney general (2) chief justice of india
(1) attorney general (2) chief justice of india
(3) chief election commissioner (4) comptroller and audit general
105. which
of the following has the power of creating all india services
(1) lok sabha (2)rajya sabha
(1) lok sabha (2)rajya sabha
(3) lok sabha and president only (4) parliament
106. Which
department is responsible for preparation of union budget to the parliament?
(1) department of revenue (2) department of economic affair
(1) department of revenue (2) department of economic affair
(3) department of
financial services (4) department of expenditure
107. Which
of the following bill must be passed with special majority in both the houses?
(1) ordinary bill (2) money bill
(1) ordinary bill (2) money bill
(3) finance bill (4) constitutional amendment bill
108. The memebers of the rajya sabha are dierectly
(1) elected indirectly (2) mostly
nominated
(3) dierectly as well as indirectly (4) all nominated
109.
who is competetant to dillolve
the arjya sabha? (1) chairmant rajya sabha (2) president (3) vice president (4)
none of the above
110.
rajya sabha enjoys more power
related with (1) Money bill (2)
ordinary bill
(3) finace bill (4) creation of all india
services
111.The Supreme Court is a court of record. This means
1. its judgements are
recorded for perpetual memory.
2. it can punish for
contempt of Supreme court.
3. it can punish for
contempt of High court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1)
1 only
2)
1 and 2 only
3)
2 only
4)
1, 2 and 3
112.In the order of precedence, the speaker has
an equal rank to
a)
Vice-President
b)
Prime Minister
c)
Cabinet Ministers
d)
Chief Justice of India.
113.Consider an ordinary bill that originated
in the legislative assembly and is sent to the legislative council. If the
council rejects the bill then
a)
a joint sitting is called.
b)
the bill ends and becomes dead
c)
legislative assembly passes the bill for the second
time.
d)
none of the above\
114.Consider the following statements about National emergency:
1. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the
Parliament within one month.
2. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament
passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
115.With reference to recognized political party, consider the following
statements:
1. The status is
contingent on the performance of a party.
2. All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
116.The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on
1. public order
2. police
3. land
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
none
117.Who among the following takes the oath to ‘uphold the constitution and the laws’?
1. President
2. CAG
3. Supreme court Judge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
118.On a question whether a member of
parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification under
Representation of People’s Act, 1951
whose decision is final?
a)
President
b)
High Court
c)
Supreme Court
d)
Election Commission of India
119.Which of the following is/are a part of the participatory
development process?
1. State
2. NGOs
3. Pressure groups
4. Cooperatives
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1, 2 and 3 only
b)
1 ,3 and 4 only
c)
2 ,3 and 4 only
d)
1 ,2, 3 and 4
120.With reference to regionalism, consider the following statements:
1. Regionalism is a
disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying force.
2. Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
121. The collegiums system of appointment of
judges has been criticized on the basis that it
leads to
1. undue interference by executive.
2. submissiveness of
puisne judges.
3. destruction of
judicial independence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, and 3
122.The major benefits of federalism is/are
1. it helps in quick
decision making.
2. it gives voice to
regional interests.
3. it creates a
network of checks and balances. Select the
correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 only
d)
2 and 3 only
123.The constitution of India establishes a
federal system of government. This can be seen from
1. rigidity of
constitution
2. single citizenship
3. all-India services
4. supremacy of
constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 4 only
124.With reference to Armed Forces Special
powers Act (AFSPA), who among the following can declare an area as ‘disturbed area’?
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Central Government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
125.The centre and states have their own respective
sources of revenues. Which of the following is levied by the centre ?
1. professional tax
2. corporation tax
3. excise duty on
liquor
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
126.Consider the following statements about private members :
1. MPs who are not
ministers are called private members.
2. Private members can introduce a constitutional amendment bill. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
127.Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect
to any particular tax?
1. increase it
2. decrease it
3. abolish it
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
128.Which among the following is an informal device in Indian
parliamentary practice?
1. Question hour
2. Zero hour
3. Half-an-hour
discussion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 2 only
129.Fundamental Duties (FDs) were added in
1976. Which among these are FDs? 1. to protect every monument or place or object of
artistic or historic interest
2. to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and
wild life of the country
3. to safeguard public
property and to abjure violence Select the
correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
130.Among the following, which is/are a part of Alternate Dispute
Resolution (ADR) ?
1. Gram Nyayalaya
2. Fast Track Courts
3. Lok Adalats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
131. Suppose
Bihar legislative assembly passes a bill and forwards it to legislative council
which
rejects it. What happens to the bill then ?
rejects it. What happens to the bill then ?
a)
a joint sitting is called for by the Governor.
b)
the bill ends and become dead.
c)
legislative assembly can pass the bill second time to
override legislative council.
d)
(a) or (c) depending on the type of bill.
132. The original jurisdiction of the High Court
includes:
1. disputes related to
the election of MPs
2. disputes related to
the election of MLAs
3. cases related to
murder
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
133. In India, the council of ministers have:
1. Individual
responsibility
2. legal
responsibility
3. collective
responsibility
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below. a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
134. The Union executive of India consists of :
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Council of
Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1, 2 and 3 only
b)
1 ,3 and 4 only
c)
2 ,3 and 4 only
d)
1 ,2, 3 and 4
135. With
reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission, consider
the
following statements :
following statements :
1. they can be removed
for misbehaviour.
2. they can be removed
only by the President. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
136. Which of the following bodies concerned with
Inter-State relations are constitutional?
1. River water
tribunals
2. Inter-State
Councils
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
None
137. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by –
a)
Government via a resolution
b)
President
c)
Parliament
d)
(b) or( c) depending on the type of extension.
138. With reference to Finance Commission (FC), consider the following
statements :
1. As the FC is a
constitutional body, its recommendations are binding on the government.
2. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
139. Which of these is/ are constitutional posts?
1. Special officer for
linguistic minorities
2. Advocate general
3. Solicitor general
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
140. With
reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following
statements :
statements :
1. Only a retired
Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.
2. The chairman can be
reappointed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
141. The Indian constitution has defined which of
the following?
1. Scheduled Castes
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Anglo-Indians
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
142. The powers of Attorney General of
India includes
1. right to speak in
Parliament
2. right to vote in
Parliament
3. right to become member of Parliamentary committees Select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 3
c)
only 1
d)
1,2 and 3
143. Which of
the following actions can the President perform on a money bill presented to
him/her ?
him/her ?
1. pass it
2. reject it
3. return it once, but
if it comes bacl he/she has to give assent
4. pocket veto it
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 4 only
144. Who among the following participates in the
election of Vice-President ?
1. elected MPs
2. nominated MPs
3. elected MLAS
4. nominated MLAs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 only
c)
1, 2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 3 only
145. Parliamentary authorization for payments is
required for :
1. Public account of
India
2. Consolidated fund
of India
3. Contingency Fund of
India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
146. Which of the following actions can the
parliament take with respect to any particular tax?
1. increase it
2. decrease it
3. abolish it
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
147. Who among the following takes the oath to ‘uphold the constitution and the laws’?
1. President
2. CAG
3. Supreme court Judge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
148. On a
question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the
disqualification
under Representation of People’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final?
under Representation of People’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final?
a)
President
b)
High Court
c)
Supreme Court
d)
Election Commission of India
149. The central
government has decided to move the following bills in the coming session of
parliament. Which of these can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha ?
parliament. Which of these can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha ?
1. a bill for
imposition of fine for spitting on roads as part of Swachha Bharat Abhiyan
2. a bill for limiting
the borrowing of money by government to reduced fiscal deficit.
3. a bill for imposition of luxury tax on expensive items Select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
150. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign. This is
because of
1. institution of CAG
as a supreme auditor
2. Judicial review
3. Federal system of
government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
